I have a Grail Aero with Reynolds ATR wheels. The wheels came with tubes but I want to convert to tubeless. My question is, is it normal or ok for there to be a gap between the rim and the collar that holds the valves against the rim? I'm using the valves that came with the wheels. There is an o-ring in there, but it's not big enough to seal the gap. Do I need a bigger o-ring?
Update
Tubeless conversion is finished. Went pretty smoothly. I needed a tire lever to pop the bead over the edge of the rim to get the old tube out. Getting the tire back on wasn't too hard and I didn't need any tire levers. I was able to seat the bead with a high volume floor pump but not the fancy canister type. At first I could hear a slight leak at the valve but I tightened the collar a little more and it stopped, or was small enough that I couldn't hear it. Added a few ounces of Orange Seal Endurance and pumped it back up to around 35psi (tire is a Schwable G-one R 40mm). This morning the tire feels a little softer but it could also be due to how cold it got last night in my garage. Either way, it was still rideable and if there is a small leak I could still do an all day ride and not have to worry. Success!
by theeric5315
3 Comments
Its ok. Seal is on the inside
The seal happens on the inside/bed of the rim. That’s why tubeless valves typically have wider, rubber base, meant to create the seal, as you tighten the collar in your pic.
If that inside seal lets air through, it wouldn’t matter whether the valve has another seal at that gap in your pic – air would have every spoke hole to escape through.
For future reference: When your rim leaks from the holes in the rim and doesn’t stop doing so when the valve gets tighter, it usually is the tape.
But yeah, unless you get a shaped washer to conform to the rim profile, this is as good as it gets.